As it appears that we are re-covering the same ground, I'm going to pick up the conversation from here:
I think this may be the actual crux of the question. Homosexuality, in my definition, constitutes more than just the act. Just as an alcoholic is an alcoholic even if they never drink again, and it has been proven that some people are predisposed to alcoholism (which is why I don't drink), I believe that a homosexual is someone who is simply attracted to the same sex. Even as I type this, my thoughts are shifting around it. Please, indulge me as I type and think at the same time. . .
Alcoholics are named as such because they have consumed alcohol and become addicted. Can someone be an alcoholic without ever consuming alcohol? If that is the case, then could I be considered an alcoholic because it runs in my family, yet I have never tasted the stuff? I would say, and I have said, that I have an addictive personality, therefore I refuse to sample beer due to the pull that I know it
may have on me. But, does that possibility
make me an alcoholic? No. However, there is a difference between someone who
might be an alcoholic and someone who definitively has desires for the same gender, but has never acted on it. I have no real desire for alcohol, with the exception of a desire to taste certain types of wine and champagne, but people with same-sex attraction (homosexuals, in my book), have a visceral desire for the same gender and an equal void of desire for the opposite gender. It appears to be comparing apples to radios.
I would say that one does not have to engage in homosexual activity to be considered homosexual, unlike alcoholism. If someone desires both sexes, but never acts on the desire for the same gender, we call that 'bi-curious', but we never call it 'homosexual-curious'. Hmm . . .