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He tasted Death for All Mankind
Heb 2:6 Yet somewhere someone certifies, saying, "What is man, that Thou art mindful of him, Or a son of mankind, that Thou art visiting him?
Heb 2:7 Thou makest him some bit inferior to messengers, With glory and honor Thou wreathest him, And dost place him over the works of Thy hands."
Heb 2:8 All dost Thou subject underneath his feet.For in the subjection of all to him, He leaves nothing unsubject to him. Yet now we are not as yet seeing all subject to him."
Heb 2:9 Yet we are observing Jesus, Who has been made some bit inferior to messengers (because of the suffering of death, wreathed with glory and honor), so that in the grace of God, He should be tasting death for the sake of everyone."
Now I ask what is this Death that He tasted, is it the death of the physical body? or have we overlooked another Death that is plainly listed in Scripture? After all, we know that all will die one day in the physical body.
He did taste Death for All mankind, because there is ONLY ONE Death that passed upon All men by sin, and that is The Nature itself, The Nature of the Carnal man, which is Death. Rom. 8:6 Rom. 5-
Paul is Revealing something here in 1Th. 4, that goes quite unnoticed to most.
1Th 4:11 And that ye study to be quiet, and to do your own business, and to work with your own hands, as we commanded you;
1Th 4:12 That ye may walk honestly toward them that are without, and that ye may have lack of nothing.
1Th 4:13 But I would not have you to be ignorant, brethren, concerning them which are asleep, that ye sorrow not, even as others which have no hope.
Paul is talking about those that are "without" or outside of the doors, then refers to them as being "Asleep" this word asleep, means to slumber, and is different from dead in vs. 16.
1Th 4:14 For if we believe that Jesus died and rose again, even so them also which sleep in Jesus will God bring with him.
1Th 4:15 For this we say unto you by the word of the Lord, that we which are alive and remain unto the coming of the Lord shall not prevent them which are asleep.
1Th 4:16 For the Lord himself shall descend from heaven with a shout, with the voice of the archangel, and with the trump of God: and the dead in Christ shall rise first:
I think we would do well to take notice of the way Paul uses the Phrases, "Jesus Christ" and "Christ Jesus" throughout all of his Epistles. He reverses the order, and sometimes uses just Jesus, and sometimes Just Christ, but there is a reason for it.
One denotes His days in the Flesh, and His sufferings, the other speaks of His Resurrection and Glory in the Spirit.
So when he uses the term "sleep in Jesus"
And "Dead in Christ", there is a difference.
Those that have fallen asleep depicts those of which, He tasted of their Death, but they have not participated in His, those without.
But those that are Dead in Christ, are the ones who have been a participant of His Death, His Sufferings, His Resurrection.
So indeed, He is The Saviour of The World, Especially for those who believe.
Blessings
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To continue on with this train of thought, when Jesus said if I be lifted up will draw (drag) All unto me, He did.
But even though we do not see All as being drawn or dragged to Him in the flesh as of yet, we do have a double witness here
in this chapter of Th. 4 When All will be made manifested, that He did draw all unto Him, when it says subjected to Him.
Paul understood this, that it was done in Jesus Christ, and eventually we will see All mankind made subject unto Him.
The word Subject here is:
hoop-ot-as'-so
From G5259 and G5021; to subordinate; reflexively to obey: - be under obedience (obedient), put under, subdue unto, (be, make) subject (to, unto), be (put) in subjection (to, under), submit self unto.
This is The Good News, This is The Gospel Christ Jesus.
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What does the word "all" mean?
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1Th 4:11 And that ye study to be quiet, and to do your own business, and to work with your own hands, as we commanded you;
1Th 4:12 That ye may walk honestly toward them that are without, and that ye may have lack of nothing.
1Th 4:13 But I would not have you to be ignorant, brethren, concerning them which are asleep, that ye sorrow not, even as others which have no hope.
Paul is talking about those that are "without" or outside of the doors, then refers to them as being "Asleep" this word asleep, means to slumber, and is different from dead in vs. 16.
I've not gotten that interpretation out of Thessalonians. 'Them that are without' are those outside of the church and the body of Christ. 'Them which are asleep' are those that have died, either from persecutions or natural causes. It's notable that there were some serious persecutions taking place with those people.
Therefore we ourselves boast about you in the churches of God for your steadfastness and faith in all your persecutions and in the afflictions that you are enduring. This is evidence of the righteous judgment of God, that you may be considered worthy of the kingdom of God, for which you are also suffering-- since indeed God considers it just to repay with affliction those who afflict you, and to grant relief to you who are afflicted as well as to us, when the Lord Jesus is revealed from heaven with his mighty angels in flaming fire, inflicting vengeance on those who do not know God and on those who do not obey the gospel of our Lord Jesus. They will suffer the punishment of eternal destruction, away from the presence of the Lord and from the glory of his might, when he comes on that day to be glorified in his saints, and to be marveled at among all who have believed, because our testimony to you was believed.
(2Th 1:4-10 ESV)
So the distinction here is between the churches of God, (those that are worthy of the kingdom and are suffering persecution for the Lord and those that do not know God and are the persecutors) who it says will suffer the punishment of eternal destruction from the presence of the Lord.
A good reason to repent and turn to Jesus! I don't want the vengence of God but his salvation.
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Asleep as Paul uses it here, means to slumber, and not in a good sense.
I must ask you then, if you don't see it that way, then who are the Dead in Christ in vs. 16?
And why does Paul make the distinction, between those two,
Sleep in Jesus
Dead in Christ
1Co 11:28 But let a man examine himself, and so let him eat of that bread, and drink of that cup.
1Co 11:29 For he that eateth and drinketh unworthily, eateth and drinketh damnation to himself, not discerning the Lord's body.
1Co 11:30 For this cause many are weak and sickly among you, and many sleep.
Same word sleep here as slumber.
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Originally Posted by
Israel
What does the word "all" mean?
Last time I checked, it means "The whole kit-n-kaboodle"
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2KH, isn't it obvious that Paul is writing to comfort Christians? And the seperation between believers and unbelievers is also very obvious. Just because he uses sleep as a metaphor for death is no reason to tortue a passage.
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Originally Posted by
Aquila
2KH, isn't it obvious that Paul is writing to comfort Christians? And the seperation between believers and unbelievers is also very obvious. Just because he uses sleep as a metaphor for death is no reason to tortue a passage.
I'm sorry you feel that way, but if you choose to ignore the contrast between "sleep in Jesus" and "Dead in Christ" then I can't do anything about that.
It's the same thing as in Gen 6: "Sons of God" and "Daughters of men" Contrast always means there is something more to understand.
You said you see Paul conveying the separation between believers and unbelievers in that portion of Scripture to comfort, right?
Then why don't you see the fact that he is also telling you that they also will be saved? That God through Christ will bring them with Him? That is the hope that he is referring too.
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